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Abstract

We prove some new sufficient conditions for a function to be p-valent or p-valently starlike in the unit disc. MSC: Primary 30C45; secondary 30C80

Results & Lemmas (8)

Each result is auto-extracted from the paper via OCR - the math is shown verbatim and may carry occasional transcription artifacts. Click to expand the full statement.

Lemma 2.1 · coeff Lemma 2.1. [5] Let be analytic in the unit disc and suppose that (2.1) then f(z) is univalent in |z| < 1.
Lemma 2.1. [5] Let $f(z) = z + a_2 z^2 + \cdots$ be analytic in the unit disc and suppose that $$|f''(z)| < 1, \quad |z| < 1,$$ (2.1) then f(z) is univalent in |z| < 1.
Lemma 2.2 Lemma 2.2. [6] Let p(z) be an analytic function in |z| < 1 with p(0) = 1,. If there exists a point,, such that and for some, then we have…
Lemma 2.2. [6] Let p(z) be an analytic function in |z| < 1 with p(0) = 1, $p(z) \neq 0$ . If there exists a point $z_0$ , $|z_0| < 1$ , such that $$\left|\arg\{p(z)\}\right| < \frac{\pi\alpha}{2} \quad for |z| < |z_0|$$ and $$\left|\arg\{p(z_0)\}\right| = \frac{\pi\alpha}{2}$$ for some $0 < \alpha < 2$ , then we have $$\frac{z_0p'(z_0)}{p(z_0)}=is\alpha,$$ where $$s \ge \frac{1}{2} \left( a + \frac{1}{a} \right)$$ when $\arg \left\{ p(z_0) \right\} = \frac{\pi \alpha}{2}$ and $$s \le -\frac{1}{2}\left(a + \frac{1}{a}\right)$$ when $\arg\left\{p(z_0)\right\} = -\frac{\pi\alpha}{2}$ , where $$\{p(z_0)\}^{1/\alpha} = \pm ia$$ , and $a > 0$ .
Lemma Lemma. [[ ]](#page-8-8) Let p be a positive integer. If f (z) = z<sup>p</sup> + ∞ <sup>n</sup>=p+ anz<sup>n</sup> is analytic in…
Lemma . [[\]](#page-8-8) Let p be a positive integer. If f (z) = z<sup>p</sup> + ∞ <sup>n</sup>=p+ anz<sup>n</sup> is analytic in <sup>D</sup> and if it satisfies $$\mathfrak{Re}\left\{\frac{zf^{(p)}(z)}{f^{(p-1)}(z)}\right\} > 0, \quad z \in \mathbb{D},\tag{2.2}$$ then f (z) is p-valently starlike in D and $$\mathfrak{Re}\left\{\frac{zf^{(k)}(z)}{f^{(k-1)}(z)}\right\} > 0, \quad z \in \mathbb{D}$$ $$\tag{2.3}$$ for k = , , . . . , (p – ).
Lemma Lemma. ([ ](#page-8-8), p.) Let f ∈ Ap. If there exists a (p – k + )-valent starlike function g(z) = ∞ <sup>n</sup>=p–k+ bnz<sup>n</sup>…
Lemma . ([\[\]](#page-8-8), p.) Let f ∈ Ap. If there exists a (p – k + )-valent starlike function g(z) = ∞ <sup>n</sup>=p–k+ bnz<sup>n</sup> (bp–k+ = ) that satisfies $$\mathfrak{Re}\left\{\frac{zf^{(k)}(z)}{g(z)}\right\} > 0, \quad |z| < 1, \tag{2.4}$$ then f (z) is p-valent in |z| <.
Theorem Theorem. Let f ∈ A<sup>p</sup> and suppose that <span id="page-2-0"></span> (3.1) where β =. ··· is the positive root of the equation (3.2)…
Theorem . Let f ∈ A<sup>p</sup> and suppose that <span id="page-2-0"></span> $$|f^{(p+1)}(z)| < \alpha(\beta_0)(p!), \quad |z| < 1,$$ (3.1) where β = . ··· is the positive root of the equation $$2\beta + \frac{2}{\pi} \tan^{-1} \beta = 1, \quad 0 < \beta < 1$$ (3.2) and $$\alpha(\beta_0) = \sin\left\{\frac{\pi}{2} \left(\beta_0 + (2/\pi) \tan^{-1} \beta_0\right)\right\}$$ $$= \sin\left\{\frac{(1-\beta_0)\pi}{2}\right\}$$ $$= 0.82 \cdots.$$ Then we have $$\Re\left\{\frac{zf^{(p)}(z)}{f^{(p-1)}(z)}\right\} > 0, \quad |z| < 1, \tag{3.3}$$ and, therefore, we have $$\Re\left\{\frac{zf'(z)}{f(z)}\right\} > 0, \quad |z| < 1, \tag{3.4}$$ or f(z) is p-valently starlike in |z| < 1. Proof From the hypothesis (3.1), we have <span id="page-3-1"></span> $$\begin{aligned} \left| f^{(p)}(z) - p! \right| &= \left| \int_0^z f^{(p+1)}(t) \, \mathrm{d}t \right| \\ &\leq \int_0^{|z|} \left| f^{(p+1)}(t) \right| |\mathrm{d}t| < p! \int_0^{|z|} \alpha(\beta_0) |\mathrm{d}t| \\ &= p! \alpha(\beta_0) |z| < p! \alpha(\beta_0). \end{aligned}$$ This shows that $$\left| \arg \left\{ f^{(p)}(z) \right\} \right| < \sin^{-1} \alpha(\beta_0), \quad |z| < 1.$$ (3.5) Let us put $$q(z) = \frac{f^{(p-1)}(z)}{p!z}, \qquad q(0) = 1.$$ (3.6) Then it follows that $$q(z) + zq'(z) = \frac{f^{(p)}(z)}{p!}.$$ If there exists a point $z_0$ , $|z_0| < 1$ , such that $$\left|\arg\left\{q(z)\right\}\right| < \frac{\pi\beta_0}{2} \quad \text{for } |z| < |z_0|$$ and $$\left|\arg\left\{q(z_0)\right\}\right| = \frac{\pi\beta_0}{2}$$ , then by Lemma 2.2 we have <span id="page-3-2"></span><span id="page-3-0"></span> $$\frac{z_0q'(z_0)}{q(z_0)}=i\beta_0k,$$ where $$k \ge 1$$ when $\arg\{q(z_0)\} = \frac{\pi \beta_0}{2}$ (3.7) and $$k \le -1$$ when $\arg\{q(z_0)\} = -\frac{\pi\beta_0}{2}$ . (3.8) For the case (3.7), we have $$\arg \left\{ f^{(p)}(z) \right\} = \arg \left\{ \frac{f^{(p)}(z)}{p!} \right\}$$ $$= \arg \left\{ q(z_0) + z_0 q'(z_0) \right\}$$ $$= \arg \left\{ q(z_0) \left( 1 + \frac{z_0 q'(z_0)}{q(z_0)} \right) \right\}$$ $$= \frac{\pi \beta_0}{2} + \arg \{ 1 + i\beta_0 k \}$$ $$\geq \frac{\pi \beta_0}{2} + \tan^{-1} \beta_0$$ $$= \frac{\pi}{2} \left\{ \beta_0 + (2/\pi) \tan^{-1}(\beta_0) \right\}$$ $$= \sin^{-1} \alpha(\beta_0).$$ This contradicts (3.5), and for the case (3.8), applying the same method as above, we have <span id="page-4-0"></span> $$\arg\{f^{(p)}(z)\} \le -\sin^{-1}\alpha(\beta_0).$$ This also contradicts (3.5) and, therefore, it shows that $$\left| \arg \left\{ \frac{f^{(p-1)}(z)}{p!z} \right\} \right| < \frac{\pi \beta_0}{2}, \quad |z| < 1.$$ (3.9) Applying (3.5) and (3.9), we have $$\left| \arg \left\{ \frac{zf^{(p)}(z)}{f^{(p-1)}(z)} \right\} \right| = \left| \arg \left\{ f^{(p)}(z) \right\} + \arg \left\{ \frac{z}{f^{(p-1)}(z)} \right\} \right|$$ $$\leq \left| \arg \left\{ f^{(p)}(z) \right\} \right| + \left| \arg \left\{ \frac{z}{f^{(p-1)}(z)} \right\} \right|$$ $$< \sin^{-1} \alpha(\beta_0) + \frac{\pi \beta_0}{2}$$ $$= \frac{\pi}{2} \left( 2\beta_0 + \frac{2}{\pi} \tan^{-1} \beta_0 \right)$$ $$= \frac{\pi}{2}.$$ This shows that $$\Re e \left\{ \frac{z f^{(p)}(z)}{f^{(p-1)}(z)} \right\} > 0, \quad |z| < 1,$$ and by Lemma 2.3 we have $$\Re \left\{ \frac{zf'(z)}{f(z)} \right\} > 0, \quad |z| < 1,$$ or f(z) is p-valently starlike in |z| < 1. Remark Note that if m(x)=x + <sup>π</sup> tan– x, then $$m(0.383) = 0.9988537761 \cdots$$ , $m(0.384) = 1.001408771 \cdots$ Hence, if $$2\beta_0 + \frac{2}{\pi} \tan^{-1} \beta_0 = 1,$$ then β = . ··· . Moreover, $$0.9673808495 \cdots < \sin^{-1}\alpha(\beta_0) = \frac{\pi}{2} \left(\beta_0 + \frac{2}{\pi} \tan^{-1}\beta_0\right) = \frac{(1-\beta_0)\pi}{2} < 0.96982343 \cdots$$ and $$\alpha(\beta_0) = \sin\left\{\frac{\pi}{2}\left(\beta_0 + \frac{2}{\pi}\tan^{-1}\beta_0\right)\right\} = 0.824669\cdots$$ For p = , Theorem [.](#page-2-2) becomes the following corollary which extends the result contained in Lemma [.](#page-1-1).
Corollary Corollary. Let f ∈ A() and suppose that (3.10) where β =. ··· is the positive root of the equation (3.11) and Then we have or f (z) is…
Corollary . Let f ∈ A() and suppose that $$\left|f''(z)\right| < \alpha(\beta_0), \quad |z| < 1,$$ (3.10) where β = . ··· is the positive root of the equation $$2\beta + \frac{2}{\pi} \tan^{-1} \beta = 1, \quad 0 < \beta < 1,$$ (3.11) and $$\alpha(\beta_0) = \sin\left\{\frac{(1-\beta_0)\pi}{2}\right\}$$ $$= 0.82\cdots.$$ Then we have $$\Re\left\{\frac{zf'(z)}{f(z)}\right\} > 0, \quad |z| < 1, \tag{3.12}$$ or f (z) is starlike univalent in |z| < . An analytic function f (z) is said to be typically real if the inequality ImzImf (z) ≥ holds for all z ∈ D. From the definition of a typically real function it follows that z ∈ D<sup>+</sup> ⇔ f (z) ∈ C<sup>+</sup> and z ∈ D– ⇔ f (z) ∈ C–. The symbols D+, D–, C+, C– stand for the following sets: the upper and the lower halves of the disk D, the upper half-plane and the lower half-plane, respectively.
Theorem 3.3 Theorem 3.3. Let and suppose that <span id="page-6-1"></span> (3.13) where g(z) is univalent starlike in and the functions <span…
Theorem 3.3. Let $f(z) \in A_p$ and suppose that <span id="page-6-1"></span> $$\left| \arg \left\{ \frac{z f^{(p)}(z)}{g(z)} \right\} \right| < \frac{\pi}{2} + \tan^{-1} \frac{1 - |z|}{1 + |z|}, \quad z \in \mathbb{D},$$ (3.13) where g(z) is univalent starlike in $\mathbb{D}$ and the functions <span id="page-6-2"></span> $$\frac{zg'(z)}{g(z)}$$ and $\frac{z(\frac{zf'^{p-1}(z)}{g(z)})'}{\frac{zf'^{p-1}(z)}{g(z)}}$ (3.14) are typically real in $\mathbb{D}$ . Then we have $$\left| \arg \frac{z f^{(p-1)}(z)}{g(z)} \right| < \frac{\pi}{2}, \quad z \in \mathbb{D}.$$ (3.15) Proof Let us put <span id="page-6-0"></span> $$q(z) = \frac{zf^{(p-1)}(z)}{p!g(z)}, \qquad q(0) = 1.$$ Then it follows that $$\frac{zf^{(p)}(z)}{g(z)} = p!q(z) \left( \frac{zg'(z)}{g(z)} + \frac{zq'(z)}{q(z)} \right). \tag{3.16}$$ From the hypothesis $$\frac{zg'(z)}{g(z)} + \frac{zq'(z)}{q(z)}$$ is typically real in $\mathbb D$ . If there exists a point $z_0$ , $|z_0|<1$ , such that $$\left|\arg\{q(z)\}\right| < \frac{\pi}{2}$$ for $|z| < |z_0|$ and $$\left| \arg \left\{ q(z_0) \right\} \right| = \frac{\pi}{2}, \quad q(z_0) = \pm ia, \text{ and } a > 0,$$ then by Lemma 2.2 we have $$\frac{z_0 q'(z_0)}{q(z_0)} = is, (3.17)$$ where $$s \ge \frac{1}{2} \left( a + \frac{1}{a} \right)$$ when $\arg \left\{ q(z_0) \right\} = \frac{\pi}{2}$ and $$s \le -\frac{1}{2}\left(a + \frac{1}{a}\right)$$ when $\arg\left\{q(z_0)\right\} = -\frac{\pi}{2}$ . For the case <span id="page-7-1"></span> $$\arg\{q(z_0)\}=\frac{\pi}{2}, \quad q(z_0)=ia, a>0,$$ we have <span id="page-7-0"></span> $$\frac{z_0 q'(z_0)}{q(z_0)} = is, \quad s \ge \frac{1}{2} \left( a + \frac{1}{a} \right) > 1, \tag{3.18}$$ hence <span id="page-7-2"></span> $$\mathfrak{Im}\{z_0\} > 0 \tag{3.19}$$ because zq'(z)/q(z) is typically real. Therefore, (3.19) yields that <span id="page-7-3"></span> $$\Im \left\{ \frac{z_0 g'(z_0)}{g(z_0)} \right\} > 0, \tag{3.20}$$ because zg'(z)/g(z) is typically real. Moreover, $$\frac{1-|z_0|}{1+|z_0|} \le \Re \left\{ \frac{z_0 g'(z_0)}{g(z_0)} \right\} \le \frac{1+|z_0|}{1-|z_0|} \tag{3.21}$$ because g(z) is a univalent starlike function, see [10]. Applying (3.18), (3.20) and (3.21) in (3.16), we have $$\arg\left\{\frac{z_0 f^{(p)}(z_0)}{g(z_0)}\right\} = \arg\left\{q(z_0)\right\} + \arg\left\{\frac{z_0 g'(z_0)}{g(z_0)} + \frac{z_0 q'(z_0)}{q(z_0)}\right\} \\ = \arg\left\{q(z_0)\right\} + \arg\left\{\frac{z_0 g'(z_0)}{g(z_0)} + is\right\} \\ \ge \frac{\pi}{2} + \tan^{-1}\frac{1 - |z_0|}{1 + |z_0|}.$$ This contradicts (3.13), and for the case $$\arg\{q(z_0)\} = -\frac{\pi}{2},$$ applying the same method as above, we have $$\arg\left\{\frac{z_0 f^{(p)}(z_0)}{g(z_0)}\right\} = \arg\left\{q(z_0)\right\} + \arg\left\{\frac{z_0 g'(z_0)}{g(z_0)} + \frac{z_0 q'(z_0)}{q(z_0)}\right\}$$ $$\leq -\left\{\frac{\pi}{2} + \tan^{-1}\frac{1 - |z_0|}{1 + |z_0|}\right\}.$$ This also contradicts (3.13) and, therefore, it shows that (3.15) holds.
Corollary 3.4 Corollary 3.4. Let and all the coefficients of f(z) are real and suppose that where g(z) is univalent starlike and typically real in. Then…
Corollary 3.4. Let $f(z) \in A_p$ and all the coefficients of f(z) are real and suppose that $$\left|\arg\left\{\frac{zf^{(p)}(z)}{g(z)}\right\}\right| < \frac{\pi}{2} + \tan^{-1}\frac{1-|z|}{1+|z|}, \quad z \in \mathbb{D},$$ where g(z) is univalent starlike and typically real in $\mathbb{D}$ . Then we have <span id="page-8-1"></span> $$\left|\arg \frac{zf^{(p-1)}(z)}{g(z)}\right| < \frac{\pi}{2}, \quad z \in \mathbb{D}.$$
Function classes studied:

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